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Suppose that $v_1,v_2,...,v_k\in\mathbb{R}^n\setminus \{0\}.$ Show that there exists a linear functional $f:\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ such that $f(v_j)\neq 0$ for all $j.$

I just taking $f(x)=\langle x,y\rangle$ for fixed $y\neq 0 $. This map is linear. But I am not sure whether it will work.

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The set of vectors orthogonal to $v_1$ forms a subspace $V_1$. Because $v_1\neq0$ the subspace $V_1$ is not all of $\Bbb{R}^n$. Similarly for all $i$, the set of vectors orthogonal to $v_i$ forms a proper subspace $V_i$, $i=1,2,\ldots,k$.

At this point I refer you to the latter part of this answer, where I show that the union $\bigcup_{i=1}^kV_i$ is not all of $\Bbb{R}^n$ either. Can you do the rest with the inner product idea?


The argument works even if we had countably infinitely many vectors $v_i,i\in\Bbb{N}$.

Jyrki Lahtonen
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  • The same argument later appeared here. This link may be better for you because the parts dealing with finite fields was left out. Leaving the link to the older version into the answer. – Jyrki Lahtonen Nov 18 '14 at 06:15