This thought jumped out of me during my calculus teaching seminar.
It is well known that the classical L'Hospital rule claims that for the $\frac{0}{0}$ indeterminate case, we have: $$ \lim_{x\rightarrow A}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\lim_{x\rightarrow A}\frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)} $$ where the later could take any value including $\infty$. Here we assume that right hand side limit exist.
However, to apply it one often has to take the derivative of $f'(x)$ again at $A$, and in principle one assumes by repeatedly applying this rule we can resolve the problem by plug in the value into the function's derivative at $A$. My question is, what if the student ask if it is possible for $\lim_{x\rightarrow A} f(x),\lim_{x\rightarrow A} f'(x)\cdots \lim^{n}_{x\rightarrow A}f^{n}(x)$ be all zero for any $n$, so the rule 'fails'. How should we answer the question properly?
For example, consider the well-known non-analytic smooth function: $$f(x)= \begin{cases} e^{-1/x}& x> 0\\ 0& x\le 0 \end{cases} $$ It is a trivial exercise to verify that $f^{n}(0)=0$ for any $n\in \mathbb{N}$. Now using L'Hospital rule we compute (as if we are a low level student) $$ 1=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0^{+}}\frac{f(x)}{f(x)}=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0^{+}}\frac{f'(x)}{f'(x)}=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0^{+}}\frac{f''(x)}{f''(x)}\cdots =\frac{0}{0}=? $$ as the chain does not stop if the student applies the rule faithfully and blindly. This is a silly example, but in general for non-analytical functions I think this kind of thing could happen. And there should be more non-analytical functions than analytical functions. Is there a way for us to resolve this at introductory calculus level, so that the student know what to do, without introducing `confusing concepts' like $\epsilon-\delta$ language, Cauchy mean value theorem, Taylor series, and infinitesimals?