Given $-1\leq x_i\leq 1$ identically distributed random variables for $i=1,2,\dots n$. What is the distribution function of their product? Is there a central limit theorem for products if $n$ is large?
2 Answers
The extension of the CLT to products would involve the $n^\text{th}$ root of $n$ variables. This raises problems when we consider random variables that might be negative. Therefore, let's consider random variables $x_k\in[0,1]$ where $P(x_k\lt a)=F(a)$.
Let $u_k=\log(x_k)$, then $P(u_k\lt a)=F(e^a)$.
The mean of $u_k$ is $$ \begin{align} \mu &=-\int_{-\infty}^0F(e^a)\,\mathrm{d}a\\ &=-\int_0^1F(t)\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{t} \end{align} $$ and the variance of $u_k$ is $$ \begin{align} \sigma^2 &=-2\int_{-\infty}^0aF(e^a)\,\mathrm{d}a-\left(\int_{-\infty}^0F(e^a)\,\mathrm{d}a\right)^2\\ &=-2\int_0^1F(t)\log(t)\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{t}-\left(\int_0^1F(t)\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{t}\right)^2 \end{align} $$ So, if $-\int_0^1F(t)\log(t)\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{t}\lt\infty$, the standard CLT applies to $\log(x_k)$ and the $n^\text{th}$ root of the product of $n$ variables tends to $$ e^{-\int_0^1F(t)\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{t}} $$ Thus, the product of $x_k$ approximates a log-normal distribution where the log of the product has mean $n\mu$ and variance $n\sigma^2$. That is, the distribution of the $n^\text{th}$ root of the product of $n$ variables approximates $$ \frac{\sqrt{n}}{x\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{n}{2}\left(\frac{\log(x)-\mu}{\sigma}\right)^2} $$ which tends to a Dirac delta at $x=e^\mu$.
The distribution of the logarithm of the product of $n$ of the $x_k$ will be the $n$-fold convolution of of the distribution of $\log(x_k)$, which is $e^aF'(e^a)$. The cumulative distribution of the logarithm of the product of $n$ of the $x_k$ is then $$ F_n(e^a)=\overbrace{e^aF'(e^a)\ast e^aF'(e^a)\ast\dots\ast e^aF'(e^a)}^{n-1\text{ terms}}\ast F(e^a) $$ The distribution of the product of $n$ of the $x_k$ is then $F_n'$
Example 1: For a uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, we have $F(t)=t$ and the $n^\text{th}$ root of the product of $n$ variables tends to $e^{-1}$.
The distribution of the $n^\text{th}$ root of the product of $n$ uniform $[0,1]$ variables approximates $$ \frac{\sqrt{n}}{x\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{n}{2}(\log(x)+1)^2} $$ which tends to a Diract Delta at $x=e^{-1}$.
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Example 2: To compute the distribution of the product of two variables, we need to consider $F$ on a wider domain: $$ F(t)=\left\{\begin{array}{l} 0&\text{if }t\lt0\\ t&\text{if }0\le t\le1\\ 1&\text{if }t\gt1 \end{array}\right. $$
we compute the convolution $$ F_2(e^a)=e^aF'(e^a)\ast F(e^a)=(1-a)e^a $$ Therefore, the cumulative distribution is $$ F_2(t)=(1-\log(t))t $$ and the distribution of the product of two uniformly distributed reals in $[0,1]$ is $$ F_2'(t)=-\log(t) $$
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I would need the distribution function, not just the expectation value, and would at least be interested in cases where the distribution function of $x_i$ is symmetric or antisymmetric about 0. – bkocsis Mar 27 '14 at 14:18
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@bkocsis: As I noted at the beginning of my answer, negative numbers pose a problem when $n$ is even. If the distribution of the variable is symmetric about $0$, then you can simply double the distribution on the positive side and use the distribution on $[0,1]$ and note that the product will be negative half of the time. – robjohn Mar 27 '14 at 16:55
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Wikipedia says that for large $n$, the result is a lognormal distribution, but you never mention this limit. The random variables have negative values with some overall probability, so I was wondering how to modify the lognormal distribution to account for this. You already give a solution for the symmetric case, so there should not be a conceptual problem for constructing the full solution. This question comes from a physics problem, and this aspect is essential not to neglect. – bkocsis Mar 27 '14 at 19:21
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@bkocsis: I stated in my initial answer that "if $-\int_0^1F(t)\log(t)\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{t}\lt\infty$, the standard CLT applies to $\log(x_k)$". This means that the log of the product tends to a log-normal distribution; that is, the distribution of the log of the variable is normal. – robjohn Mar 27 '14 at 20:40
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@bkocsis: if the distribution is symmetric and we double the positive part of the distribution, then we have the distribution of the absolute value of the product, and the sign of the product is $1/2$ positive and $1/2$ negative. – robjohn Mar 27 '14 at 22:51
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Looks good. The only thing remaining is to generalize for an arbitrary distribution of positive and negative values. – bkocsis Mar 30 '14 at 18:40
I wanted to give a one-line answer:
For $C_i$ i.i.d., $X=\prod^n_iC_i\implies log(X)=\sum^n_ilog(C_i)\implies \exists (\mu, \sigma)$ s.t. $log(X)\sim N(\mu, \sigma^2)$
Hence X follows a log-normal distribution.
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