I am studying to become a mathematics teacher in the Netherlands. I recently got this question on an exam and I wonder whether this question is strictly speaking well-written:
Assume that $p_1$ and $p_2$ are twin primes with $p_1 \geq 5$ and $p_2 = p_1 + 2.$ Show that you can write $p_1$ and $p_2$ as $p_1 = 6n - 1$ and $p_2 = 6n + 1$ (with $n \in \Bbb N).$
The two formulas given for $p_1$ and $p_2$ produce all twin primes with $p_1$ equal or bigger then $5,$ but they additionally produce pairs of numbers that are not even both primes. The fact that the formulas produce more then just twin primes mean to me that the twin primes can't be written as those formulas. So this works in one direction, but not the opposite direction. But to me the question seems to imply that this will work in both directions: where twin primes $p_1$ and $p_2$ can be written as, or defined by, those formulas.
The key of the argument with my 'professor' lies in the "(with $n \in \Bbb N$)" part. He says that the twin primes being expressible with those two formulas with $n \in \Bbb N$ doesn't mean that this holds for every $n \in \Bbb N$.
To me, the question is strangely formulated, and possibly incorrectly formulated. Is the formulation of the question correct or not?