There is numerical evidence that $$ I = \int_0^{\pi/3}\arccos\left(2 \sin^{2}\left(x\right) -\cos\left(x\right)\right)\mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^{2}}{5} $$ How can this be proved ?.
- I was trying to answer another question, and I got it down to this integral.
- I tried
integration by parts,substitutionandMaclaurin series, but it seems that this integral requires more advanced techniques. - $\tt Wolfram$ does not evaluate the indefinite integral.
- Here is the graph of $$ y = \arccos\left(2\sin^{2}\left(x\right) -\cos\left(x\right)\right)\quad\mbox{for}\quad 0\le x\le \frac{\pi}{3} $$ It intersects the axes at $\left(\pi/3,0\right)$ and $\left(0,\pi\right)$.
- Not sure if this helps, but apparently we also have $$ \int_{0}^{\pi/3}\arccos^{\color{red}{2}} \left(2\sin^{2}\left(x\right) - \cos\left(x\right)\right) \mathrm{dx} = \frac{19\pi^3}{135}$$ Edit: I ask about this here.
