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I'm trying to understand the difference between the scopes of quantifiers in the following statements and how that impacts taking negations and contrapositives.

Statement 1: $\quad \exists M \in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \forall x\in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \big(x\geq M \implies f(x)>0 \big).$

I believe I know how to take the negation and contrapositive of statement 1:

  • Negation: $\quad \forall M \in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \exists x\in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \big(x\geq M \land f(x)\leq0 \big).$
  • Contrapositive: $\quad \exists M \in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \forall x\in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \big(f(x)\leq0 \implies x<M \big).$

Statement 2: $\quad \big(\exists M \in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \forall x\in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad x\geq M\big) \implies f(x)>0 .$

Given statement 2 as above, my questions are:

  1. Is there a difference between statement 2 and statement 1, and if so, what is it? An intuitive approach would be appreciated if possible.
  2. If there is a difference, how does that impact the negation and contrapositive of statement 2?
  3. Finally, if there are any mistakes in my negation and contrapositive of statememt 1, I would appreciate corrections.
Amioun
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    In Statement 2, note that $\exists M>0,\forall x>0,x\ge M$ is just false, thus making the overall implication true. Even though the $x$ in $f(x)$ is not in the scope of the $\forall$ and hence is still a free variable – Hagen von Eitzen Dec 26 '21 at 09:32
  • @HagenvonEitzen I guess this is a bad example then. Suppose statement 2 wasn't vacuously true, how would I find a logically equivalent statement? Would it be $f(x)\leq 0 \implies \lnot \big(\exists M \in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \forall \quad x\in\mathbb{R}^+ \quad x \geq M \big)$? – Amioun Dec 26 '21 at 21:19

2 Answers2

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Statement 1 doesn't have a contrapositive.

Only conditionals have contrapositives, and 1 isn't a conditional.

More carefully, in a formal context, only formulae whose main logical operator is the conditional (i.e. which are instances of the schema $A \to B$) have contrapositives (the corresponding instance of $\neg B \to \neg A$). And the main operator of 1 is the initial quantifier, so the notion of contraposition doesn't directly apply.

However, if you have a quantified formula $Q_1Q_2\ldots Q_n(A \to B)$ then that will be equivalent to what you get by contraposing $(A \to B)$, i.e. to $Q_1Q_2\ldots Q_n(\neg B \to \neg A)$ but of course leaving the quantifier prefix untouched!

Statement 2 is simply ill-formed in any sensible syntax.

Peter Smith
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Statement 1: $\quad \exists M \in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \forall x\in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \big(x\geq M \implies f(x)>0 \big).$

Statement 2: $\quad \big(\exists M \in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \forall x\in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad x\geq M\big) \implies f(x)>0 .$

  1. Is there a difference between statement 2 and statement 1, and if so, what is it? An intuitive approach would be appreciated if possible.

Good observation that Formulae 1 & 2 have different negations and different contrapositives, and thus different meanings!

Side note: Formula 2 is more clearly written as $$\quad \big(\exists M \in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad \forall y\in \mathbb{R}^+ \quad y\geq M\big) \implies f(x)>0$$ (notice that its variable $x$ is actually free and thus requires context), so is called an open formula instead of a statement.

Now, consider the logic formula \begin{gather}\Big(∀x\:Px\Big)\to Qy \quad↔\quad ∃x\:\Big(Px\to Qy\Big).\tag1\end{gather} If $(1)$'s RHS is false, then $∀x\:\Big(Px\land \lnot Qy\Big),$ so $Px$ is universally true and $\lnot Qy$ true, so $Px$ is universally true while $Qy$ false, so $(1)$'s LHS is false; by contrapositive and since we have been abstractly inferring, $(1)$'s LHS logically implies $(1)$'s RHS. On the other hand, if $(1)$'s LHS is false, then $Px$ is universally true and $Qy$ false, so $(Px\land \lnot Qy)$ is universally true, so $(Px\to Qy)$ is universally false, so $(1)$'s RHS is false; by contrapositive and since we have been abstractly inferring, $(1)$'s RHS logically implies $(1)$'s LHS. Hence, $(1)$'s LHS and RHS are logically equivalent, that is, \begin{gather}\Big(∀x\:Px\Big)\to Qy \quad\equiv\quad ∃x\:\Big(Px\to Qy\Big).\end{gather} Similarly, \begin{gather}\Big(∃x\:Px\Big)\to Qy \quad\equiv\quad ∀x\:\Big(Px\to Qy\Big).\end{gather}

  1. If there is a difference, how does that impact the negation and contrapositive of statement 2?
  2. Finally, if there are any mistakes in my negation and contrapositive of statement 1, I would appreciate corrections.

Your negation and contrapositive of Formula $(1)$ are both correct; just do the same for Formula $(2)$ (the procedure is more straightforward as the main connective ‘${\Rightarrow}$’ is not being quantified).

ryang
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