In this question manifolds always mean differentiable manifolds and vector fields always mean differentiable vector fields. The following is a stanndard result:
Proposition 1. $(\nabla_X Y_1)(p)=(\nabla_X Y_2)(p)$ for all vector fields $X,Y_1,Y_2$ satisfying $Y_1|_U=Y_2|_U$ for some open neighbourhood $U$ containing $p$ and that $(\nabla_{X_1}Y)(p)=(\nabla_{X_2}Y)(p)$ for vector fields with $X_1(p)=X_2(p)$.
Furthermore the result about bump functions is well known:
Proposition 2. Let $M$ be a manifold, $p \in M$ and $U$ be an open neighbourhood of $p$. Then there exist open neighbourhoods of $p$, $U_1,U_2$ such that $\overline{U_1} \subseteq U_2$, $\overline{U_2} \subseteq U$ as well as a differentiable function $f:M \to [0,1]$ such that $f|_{U_1}=1, f|_{M \setminus U_2}=0$.
The definition of the Christoffel symbols is as follows. For a $p \in M$ and a chart $(U,\varphi)$ around $p$ one knows that the $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_1}|_p,...\frac{\partial}{\partial x_n}|_p$ form a basis of $T_pM$. Hence: $$\nabla_{\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}}\frac{\partial}{\partial x_j}=\sum_k \Gamma_{ij}^k \frac{\partial}{\partial x_k}$$ for differentiable $\Gamma_{ij}^k:U \to \mathbb{R}.$ What is weird at first is that we calculate the connection of local vector fields instead of global vector fields. This is where Proposition 1 is being used I think:
If $X,Y$ is a local vector field, i.e. $Y: U \to TU,$ and $X:U \to TU$, we can define $$\overline{X}(q):=\begin{cases} f(q)X(q), q \in U,\\ 0, \text{otherwise} \end{cases},$$ where $f$ is a bump function. Then one can define $$(\nabla_XY)(q):= (\nabla_{\overline{X}}\overline{Y})(q), q \in U.$$
This means that one actually computes $\nabla_{\overline{\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}}}\overline{\frac{\partial}{\partial x_j}}=\sum_k \Gamma_{ij}^k \frac{\partial}{\partial x_k}$.
Another common thing to use is the local representation of a vector field in calculations: In a chart $(U,\varphi)$ one has $X|_U=\sum_{i} X_i \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}$ and thus $$\nabla_X Y=\sum_i X_i \nabla_{\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}} Y.$$ Why is that? We know that this property holds for local vector fields, but $\sum_i X_i \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}$ is again local, meaning one would have to multiply with a bump function $f$. Thus $$\overline{X}=\begin{cases} \sum_i f(q)X_i(q) \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}|_q, \ q \in U,\\ 0, \text{otherwise}. \end{cases}$$ However, I don't think this quite works and that one has to extend the $X_i$ by bump functions globally as well, right? If $\overline{X_i}$ are global extensions of the $X_i$ in this way, one can define $$\widetilde{X}(q):=\begin{cases} f(q) \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}|_q, \ q \in U\\ 0, \text{otherwise}\end{cases}$$ and obtains $X|_U=\sum_i \overline{X_i}|_U\widetilde{X}|_U$ and thus, finally, $$\nabla_X Y=\nabla_{\sum_i \overline{X_i} \widetilde{X}} Y=\sum_i \overline{X_i}\nabla_{\widetilde{X}}Y=\sum_i X_i \nabla_{\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}} Y.$$ Is this correct? I hope this correctly justifies why one can simply "apply the rules" to local vector fields as well, without bothering whether they are locally or globally defined.