Consider the series $1 + 3/5 + 3^2/5^2 + \cdots = \sum_{j=0}^\infty 3^j/5^j$. In both the standard metric and the $3$-adic metric, $\sum_{j=0}^\infty 3^j/5^j = 5/2$. Is this a coincidence because of the geometric nature of the sum (which has an algebraic solution method that's valid in both fields), or is the case that if $x_n \to x \in \mathbb{R}$, and $x_n \to y \in \mathbb{Q}_p$, then $x = y$ (via the natural embedding)? If it's not the case in $\mathbb{Q}_p$, then what about in $\mathbb{Z}_p$?
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1I'm pretty sure that doesn't converge $3$-adically. The terms don't even tend to $0$ in size. – Nate Jul 22 '20 at 19:07
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@Nate, I have changed the example. – Jul 22 '20 at 19:51
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I feel like it's probably true because you should be able to create an intermediate geometric series that converges that is arbitrarily close to both $x$ and to $y$ (in the respective metrics), making the difference of $y - x$ arbitrarily close to $0$ in either metric, but I want to be sure I'm not making a mistake. This seems like something that should be known and easy to confirm in a textbook or something, but I've been having trouble finding a source. – Jul 22 '20 at 20:05
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Related: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3578793/96384, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2300172/96384, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3059249/96384. – Torsten Schoeneberg Jul 22 '20 at 23:35
1 Answers
First of all, there is no natural embedding from $\Bbb R$ to $\Bbb Q_p$ or vice-versa.
If you have a sequence of rational numbers, then it may converge both in $\Bbb R$ and in $\Bbb Q_p$, but it may converge to transcendental numbers in either field.
Example: $\sum_{n \geq 0} \frac{3^n}{n!}$ converges in $\Bbb R$ to $e^3$, and in $\Bbb Q_3$ to a transcendental number in $\Bbb Q_3$ (which is the analog of $e^3$). It is meaningless to say whether these two are equal.
In your example, it is special because the series you are using is the Taylor expansion of a rational function in $\Bbb Q$. It then makes sense, because both series converge to the value of the rational function, which takes values in $\Bbb Q$.
In general, suppose you have a sequence $(x_n)_n$ of rational numbers, which converges both in $\Bbb R$ and in $\Bbb Q_p$, and the limits are both rational numbers, they still may be different.
Example: $x_n = \frac {3^n}{1 + 3^n}$. In $\Bbb R$ it converges to $1$, while in $\Bbb Q_3$ it converges to $0$.
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2My favorite example involves taking the square root of $1/9$. In both the reals and 2-adics the Maclaurin series for $\sqrt{1+x}$ converges. But the real number series identifies $+1/3$ and the 2-adic one identifies $-1/3$! The Maclaurin series in 2-adics, where it converges, always gives a result $\equiv +1\bmod 4$. – Oscar Lanzi Jul 22 '20 at 21:14
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2Another similar one to @OscarLanzi that I find very memorable is $\sqrt{4}$ in the 3-adics. The series $\sqrt{1+3} = \binom{1/2}{0} +\binom{1/2}{1}3+\binom{1/2}{2}3^2+\cdots \equiv 1 \mod 3$ which means $\sqrt{4}=-2$ not $+2$! – Merosity Jul 23 '20 at 04:45