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Given function: $f(x)=\frac{1}{x-1} $

What is formula for $f_n$, if $f_2=f \circ f$ and $f_n=f\circ f_{n-1}$ for $n>2$?

I have one observation: $f_n=\frac{a}{b}$ where $a$ is denominator from $f_{n-1}$ and $b$ is some binomial.

Bill Dubuque
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1qwertyyyy
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  • notice that :$$f(x)=(x-1)^{-1}$$ $$f(f(x))=((x-1)^{-1} )-1)^{-1}$$ $$f(f(f(x)))=(((x-1)^{-1} )-1)^{-1} -1)^{-1}$$ – Absurd Jan 09 '20 at 21:43
  • @Absurd Oh thanks, it seems like helpful idea, but i dont really now what to do next – 1qwertyyyy Jan 09 '20 at 21:49
  • $$f_n(x)=(...(x-1)^{-1})-1)^{-1})...)-1)^{-1}$$ – Absurd Jan 09 '20 at 21:49
  • @Absurd I think OP expects a closed form of $f_n$ – SL_MathGuy Jan 09 '20 at 21:50
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    @SL_Mathguy,that just was a little hint – Absurd Jan 09 '20 at 21:51
  • @SL_MathGuy yes, i do – 1qwertyyyy Jan 09 '20 at 21:51
  • I'm not sure if there exists a closed form of $f_n$.If it does, then it should be of the form,

    $f_n= \dfrac{a_n-c_nx}{a_nx-(a_n+c_n)}$ when $n$ is odd . $f_n= \dfrac{a_nx-c_n}{(a_n+c_n)-c_nx}$ when $n$ is even.

    , where $a_n, c_n\in \mathbb{N}$ for all $n=2,3,4,...$ with $a_2=1, c_2=1$ & $a_3=2,c_3=1$

    – SL_MathGuy Jan 09 '20 at 23:16
  • For my own exercise I've considered the iteration of the related function $f(x)=1/(1+x)$ Perhaps you'll find something helpful/inspiring in this : http://go.helms-net.de/math/tetdocs/FracIterAltGeom.htm Perhaps the most direct entry is "chapter" (3) immediately leading to the Fibonacci-coefficients – Gottfried Helms Jan 13 '20 at 12:34
  • By inserting $f(x)$ into $f(x)$ and simplifying I get the following sequence of functions with a very simple pattern of coefficients: $f (x) =−(0x-1)/(1x-1) \ f°^2(x) =−(1x-1)/(1x-2) \ f°^3(x) =−(1x-2)/(2x-3) \ f°^4(x) =−(2x-3)/(3x-5) \ f°^5(x) =−(3x-5)/(5x-8) \ \vdots = \vdots $. On this one can then do the formal math induction. – Gottfried Helms Jan 13 '20 at 12:58

1 Answers1

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Yes, this is possible! This is a particular instance of a Mobius transformation and all such transformations have an easy form for their powers by using the idea of conjugacy. In particular, there is some other function $$g(z)=\frac{az+b}{cz+d}$$ such that the expression $g(f(g^{-1}(z))$ simplifies to either $kz$ or $z+k$ for some $k$. Then, $g\circ f \circ g^{-1}$ can be iterated easily, which allows for a formula for $f^n$ as I will derive below.

In particular, let $\alpha=\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}2$ and $\beta=\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}2$ be the solutions to $f(z)=z$. Since we hope that $g(f(g^{-1}(z)))=kz$ fo some $z$, we wish to choose $g$ so that $g(\alpha)=0$ and $g(\beta)=\infty$ (i.e. $g$ divides by $0$ there - this is projective infinity). We choose $$g(z)=\frac{z-\alpha}{z-\beta}$$ One may compute the inverse of $g$ to be $$g^{-1}(z)=\frac{\beta z - \alpha}{z-1}.$$ One then computes that, if we let $k=-\frac{3+\sqrt{5}}2$ we have $$g(f(g^{-1}(z)))=k\cdot z.$$ If we let $h(z)=kz$ then we find $g\circ f \circ g^{-1} = h$. Iterating this $n$ times and cancelling instances of $g^{-1}\circ g$ gives $$g\circ f^n \circ g^{-1} = h^n.$$ Rearranging gives $$f^n=g^{-1}\circ h^n \circ g$$ which, since $h^n(z)=k^n\cdot z$ is easy to compute, gives a closed form for $f^n$, if I've done the algebra correctly, where $\alpha,\beta,k$ are the previously defined constants: $$f^n(z) = \frac{k^n-1+(\beta k^n - \alpha)z}{\beta - \alpha k^n + (k^n-1)z}$$


You can also show that $$f^n(z)=\frac{F_{n-1}-F_{n-2}z}{F_n z - F_{n-1}}$$ where $F_n$ is the Fibonacci sequence with $F_0=F_1=1$. This can be shown easily via induction and more conceptually via the matrix representation of Mobius transformations.

Milo Brandt
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  • When $n=2$, $f_2 = \dfrac{x-1}{2-x}$ but it's not the case for this $f^n$. I assume this error is due to the choice of $k$ may be? – SL_MathGuy Jan 09 '20 at 23:52
  • @SL_MathGuy Let me think for a second; it's probably just an algebra error somewhere. – Milo Brandt Jan 09 '20 at 23:57
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    @SL_MathGuy It seems to work when I compute at $n=2$; note that you need to cancel a common factor of $-\frac{5+3\sqrt{5}}2$ from numerator and denominator to get from my form to the one you give. – Milo Brandt Jan 10 '20 at 00:01
  • Yeah, I missed it. Sorry about that. – SL_MathGuy Jan 10 '20 at 00:04