Your question is the coupon collector's problem with $n=250$ and $k=500$.
For the coupon collector's problem with $n$ objects, let $D$ be the number of draws needed to get a complete set. Then we have the formula $$\mathbb{P}(D\leq k)=n^{-k}\ n!\ \left\lbrace {k\atop n}\right\rbrace.$$ Here the braces indicate Stirling numbers of the second kind.
Plugging in $n=250$ and $k=500$ gives
$$\mathbb{P}(500 \mbox{ draws suffice})=250^{-500}\, 250!\,\left\lbrace{500 \atop 250}\right\rbrace =4.49220\times 10^{-18}\approx 0.$$ This means that the chance is practically zero.
The average number of draws to get a full collection with $n=250$ is
$$250\left(1+{1\over 2}+{1\over 3}+\cdots+{1\over 250}\right)=1525.168,$$
so you need over 1500 draws to get a halfways decent chance to get all 250 balls at least once.