In this answer I will give two major theorems and one conjecture which speak to the question of whether $a^b$ is in the algebraic numbers which we let $\bar{\mathbb{Q}}$ denote.
There is a powerful theorem called the Lindemann–Weierstrass theorem which allows to make some sweeping statements about $e^x$. But the statements are about the transcendentality of $e^x$ and not that rationality. Of course if a number is not algebraic it is not rational.
For example, by LW Theorem we have
For non-zero algebraic numbers $A,B$ and any algebraic numbers $x,y$ we have
$Ae^x-Be^y \ne 0$.
By taking $A=1, y=0$ we have that $e^x \neq B$ meaning that $e^x$ is not algebraic for any algebraic $x$. And through contrapositive we have have that when $e^x$ is algebraic $x$ must be some non-algebraic number. As appears in the comments $e^{\ln 2}, e^{2\pi i} $ are both in the rationals. This implies that $2\pi i$ (and therefore $\pi)$ and $\ln 2$ are transcendental numbers.
So for example: $\color{red}{e^{\sqrt 2},\ln(e^3+1),\ln(2) \notin \bar{\mathbb{Q}}}$
The other thing that you might be (mis)recalling is the Gelfond Schneider Theorem:
$a^b$ is transcendental whenever $a\neq 0$ and $b$ are algebraic but $b$ is irrational. We also interpret $b$ as irrational when $Im(b)\neq 0$
This isn't about $e^x$ per se but it does have an irrational exponent which is maybe what you were getting at with your question.
We can fiddle with it a tiny bit and make it a statement about $e^x= e^{\ln(a^b)}=e ^{b\ln(a)}$ is transcendental and therefore irrational whenever $a$ and $b$ are algebraic but $b$ irrational.
So for example: $\color{red}{{\sqrt{5}}^{\sqrt 7} \notin \bar{\mathbb{Q}}}$
Also this theorem together with Euler's identity implies $e^{\pi z}$ is transcendental whenever $z$ is an algebraic number with non zero real part. Note $$e^{\pi z}= e^{i\pi \times-i z}=(e^{\pi i})^{-iz}=(-1)^{-iz}$$ In this case $a=(-1)$ is a non zero algebraic number and $b=-iz$ is algebraic and is to be considered irrational. So we have met the criteria of the theorem.
So for example: $\color{red}{{e}^{\pi\sqrt 2} \notin \bar{\mathbb{Q}}}$
The last thing to discuss is Schanuel's conjecture. Assuming Schanuel's conjecture is true we also can say $\color{red}{{e}^{e} \notin \bar{\mathbb{Q}}}$. My understanding is that we don't have currently a proof that $e^e \notin \mathbb{Q}$.