This is from Rudin's book:
Suppose $1\leq p \leq \infty$ and $q$ such that $1/p+1/q=1$. Suppose $\mu$ is a positive $\sigma$-finite measure and $g$ is a measurable function such that $fg\in L_1$ for every $f\in L_p$. Prove that $g\in L_q$
I'm trying to follow the steps in this post Riesz representation theorem, part of the proof (2)., I'll just paste here the steps:
$(X,A, \mu)$ is $\sigma$-finite. For $|g|$, exists an increasing sequence $(\phi_n)$ of simple functions, such that converges to $|g|$. Since $\sigma$-finite, exists an increasing sequence of sets $(E_n)$ with finite measure such that $\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty E_n=X$. Define $g_n=\phi_n\cdot\chi_{E_n}$, we have that $(g_n)$ is an increasing sequence of simple function such that converges to $|g|$, even more \begin{align*} \int |\text{sig}(g)(g_n)^{q-1}|^p\;d\mu & = \int |(g_n)^{q-1}|^p\;d\mu \\ &= \int \chi_{E_n}|(\phi_n)^{q-1}|^p\;d\mu \\ &= \int_{E_n}|(\phi_n)^{q-1}|^p\;d\mu \\ & \leq \mu(E_n)\max(|(g_n)^{q-1}|^p)<\infty, \end{align*} hence $(g_n)^{q-1}\text{sig}(g)\in L_p$ for all $n$, even more \begin{align*} \int (g_n)^q\;d\mu &= \int (g_n)^{q-1}g_n\;d\mu\\ &\leq \int (g_n)^{q-1}|g|\;d\mu\\ &\leq \int (g_n)^{q-1}\text{sig}(g)g\;d\mu\\ \end{align*}
Now I want to proceed with the argument as follows: since $\mbox{sig}(g)(g_n)^{q-1}\in L_p$, by hypothesis it follows that the above integral $\int(g_n)^q d\mu <+\infty $. Now the problem is: I can't ensure that those integrals are "equally bounded", because I can't guarantee that $f\mapsto \int fg d\mu$ is a bounded operator as in the hypothesis of the question linked here. So, it may be the case that $\int (g_n)^q d\mu \rightarrow \infty$ and I can't proceed using the monotone convergence theorem to sate that $g\in L_q$.
How to proceed with this idea? Is there another path? Thank you.