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If $\phi$ is a formula in which $x$ is not free, then: $(\exists x \ \forall y \ (y \in x \leftrightarrow\ \phi)) $ is an axiom.

This is the inconsistent Naive comprehension axiom.

Is this a paradox limited to classical [binary valued] first order logic?

I mean is this still paradoxical in multi-valued logic.

The idea is that in multi-valued logic we can have different truth values for $y \in x$, one can in some sense understand the different truth values as difference in probability of membership of $y$ in $x$.

Lets interpret the formula $y \not \in x$ as there is non zero probability of $y$ not being an element of $x$, in other words the probability of $y$ being a member of $x$ is not 1.

According to this I see the paradox disappear!

The idea is that the asserted set $x$ cannot have probability of $x \in x$ being 1, and also cannot have probability of $x \not \in x$ being 1 for obvious reasons that derives the paradox in binary logic, but it can have intermediate truth value, like for example $0.5$ probability of being in itself (and of course of not being in itself). This way I don't see any problem.

Zuhair
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  • Ok. Now resolve the Burali-Forti paradox. – William Elliot May 28 '19 at 22:32
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    @WilliamElliot, Basically the same argument, if you have fuzzy ordinals, you can still have the set of all of them and its a fuzzy element of itself. – Zuhair May 28 '19 at 22:37
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    @WilliamElliot This is a fine question. There's a decent amount of work (and I'm preparing an answer mentioning this) on ways to salvage naive set theory, including through many-valued logic. Whether probability specifically is a good motivating idea is a more technical issue, but this question definitely does not deserve a negative response (and I've upvoted). – Noah Schweber May 29 '19 at 04:42

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There has (unsurprisingly) been a decent amount of work on ways to salvage naive set theory by weakening the underlying deductive system - many-valued logic being only one aspect of this. Briefly, the situation is "yes, naive set theory is salvageable, but we have to be careful."

CAVEAT: I'm not an expert on nonclassical logics, so everything below reflects my limited understanding and quite possibly contains serious omissions or errors; however, I hope that it is still useful for giving a taste of the landscape.$^1$


Richard White showed in 1979 that full comprehension is consistent in infinite-valued Lukasiewicz logic; this confirmed a conjecture of Skolem and extended previous work by Skolem, Chang, and Hay (and others). See also Thierry Libert's essay Semantics for naive set theory in many-valued logics, in the volume "The age of alternative logics." But developing this logic is quite nontrivial.

Another interesting paper here is da Costa's On paraconsistent set theory. This lives in the realm of paraconsistent, rather than many-valued, logic, but I think is still relevant to your question. Da Costa establishes the nontriviality of a family of paraconsistent set theories admitting full comprehension (which he introduced in earlier work) relative to the consistency of Quine's NF. This latter question of course is probably the most famous open$^2$ problem in the study of alternative set theories, so in retrospect I don't know how confident we should be in the nontriviality of da Costa's systems. Still, neat!

I'll finally mention Richard Hinton's more recent (= 1994) paper Naive Set Theory with Extensionality in Partial Logic and in Paradoxical Logic, which studies both the many-valued and paraconsistent approaches simultaneously.

There is other work in this context as well, and searching for combinations of the terms (paraconsistent, many-valued, "naive set theory") is fairly fruitful.


On the other hand, it's worth noting that we have to be very careful - there are paradoxes more subtle than Russell's, which even survive naive retreats to paraconsistency. Moh Shaw-Kwei for example presents a version of Curry's paradox, roughly as follows:

Suppose we accept the rule $$p\rightarrow (p\rightarrow q)\implies p\rightarrow q.$$ Fix your favorite sentence $\varphi$ and let $$A=\{x: x\in x\rightarrow \varphi\}.$$ The definition of $A$ tells us that $$(*)\quad A\in A\leftrightarrow (A\in A\rightarrow \varphi);$$ the left-to-right part of $(*)$ and absorption then give us $$(\dagger)\quad A\in A\rightarrow\varphi.$$ But this combines with the right-to-left direction of $(*)$ to give us $$A\in A,$$ which fed into $(\dagger)$ gives us $\varphi$.

So naive comprehension trivializes everything, even without bringing negation into the picture, unless we drop a very mild hypothesis about how implication works. (Actually, Shaw-Kwei proved something somewhat stronger.) Libert's article cited above discusses this and the Lukasiewicz approach.

That is, we cannot conclude that a nonclassical approach to naive comprehension is consistent simply by observing that Russell's paradox doesn't go through.


$^1$A bit of a mixed metaphor, but I like peaty scotch.

$^2$OK fine, Holmes has presented a claimed consistency proof. However, my understanding is that it has not yet been fully vetted.

Noah Schweber
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  • There's a typo in your statement of absorption, right? It's hard to accept as written! – Alex Kruckman Jun 05 '19 at 16:41
  • @AlexKruckman Whoops, just saw this, of course you're right - I omitted part of the rule. Interestingly, it seems that "rule of absorption" is used nonstandardly by Shah-Kwei here; since I don't know what it's actually called, I've not given it a name. Do you know what it is? – Noah Schweber Jan 16 '21 at 01:55
  • That makes more sense! I don't know a name for that rule, but it could be reasonable to call it "contraction", since it's the "internalized" version of the sequent calculus rule: from $p,p\vdash q$ conclude $p\vdash q$." – Alex Kruckman Jan 16 '21 at 14:08
  • The book Petr Hájek on Mathematical Fuzzy Logic says that a serious gap was found in White's consistency proof by Terui and that (as of 2014) consistency of full comprehension in Łukasiewicz logic is still open. I don't know of any more recent results. – James E Hanson Aug 29 '22 at 20:19
  • @JamesHanson Whoah, didn't know that! I think that would be a good candidate for a follow-up question (either here or at MO), that should definitely be clarified. – Noah Schweber Aug 29 '22 at 20:26
  • @NoahSchweber I don't know if it's actually published anywhere, and I don't think I'll be able to suss out the gap any time soon. – James E Hanson Aug 30 '22 at 16:58
  • @NoahSchweber Do we know if something smaller than an infinite-valued logic can preserve comprehension? For instance, if we just use something like three-valued Kleene logic, would that do? Has there been any research on this? – Mike Battaglia Jul 17 '23 at 05:22
  • Looks like Skolem has studied this: https://www.jstor.org/stable/24489127 - apparently consistent except for some snag with quantifiers. (And is equality allowed?) – Mike Battaglia Jul 17 '23 at 05:32
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I'm no expert, but it seems to me that naive set theory with ordinary 2-value logic could avoid RP-like internal contradictions if you stick to mathematical theories with some specified underlying set(s) (e.g. the set of natural numbers $N$ in number theory) -- i.e. no arbitrary sets or objects are to be considered after these underlying sets are established.

  • You need to clarify this. I don't see a clear answer relating to the topic of this posting. But still you need to clarify this answer. – Zuhair Jun 05 '19 at 16:54
  • The topic was how naive set theory could survive. It seems to me to be alive and well in most math textbooks (perhaps more so than ZFC), e.g. in real analysis, group theory, combinatorics etc. where there are defined underlying sets/structures. RP is not an issue in these fields because they don't talk about arbitrary sets or objects. – Dan Christensen Jun 05 '19 at 18:55
  • Though I'm not so sure, but from what I remember is that MacLane once said that most of whats in ordinary mathematics is bounded Separation. I have the impression that this is what you are talking about, so it's not naive comprehension. – Zuhair Jun 05 '19 at 19:04