Here is not a closed form, but an alternative representation. Below, $(x,y)={\rm gcd}(x,y)$.
I claim that
$$\sum_{k=1}^n (k,n)=n\sum_{d\mid n}\frac{\phi(d)}{d}.
$$
To see this, observe that if $d\mid n$ is a divisor of $n$
$$
(k,n)=d \iff \left(\frac{k}{d},\frac{n}{d}\right)=1.
$$
In particular, the divisor, $d$, appears exactly $\phi(n/d)$ times in the summation. Thus,
$$
\sum_{k=1}^n (k,n)=\sum_{d\mid n}\phi(\frac{n}{d})d.
$$
Now, letting $d'=n/d$, the sum can be rewritten as,
$$
\sum_{k=1}^n (k,n)=n\sum_{d'\mid n}\frac{\phi(d')}{d'}.
$$
Hence, this object has the given operational meaning.
Now, for multiplicative property, take coprime $(m,n)$. Our goal is to show,
$$
\left(\sum_{d\mid mn}\frac{\phi(d)}{d}\right) = \left(\sum_{d\mid m}\frac{\phi(d)}{d}\right)\left(\sum_{d\mid n}\frac{\phi(d)}{d}\right).
$$
Check that, the left hand side sum has $\phi(mn)=\phi(m)\phi(n)$ terms, so do the right hand side. Furthermore, each divisor $d\mid mn$ can be uniquely decomposed into $d=d_1d_2$ where $d_1\mid m$ and $d_2\mid n$, since $(m,n)=1$. Hence, we deduce the given function is indeed multiplicative.
Remarks:
In fact, more is known about this function.
Theorem: For any positive integer $a$, there exists a positive integer $n$, such that,
$$
\sum_{d\mid n}\frac{\phi(d)}{d}=a.
$$
Try to prove this theorem, it is nice ;)