While reading about Kähler differentials I came across the seemingly innocent statement that $d\pi \in \Omega_{\mathbb{R/Q}}$ in non-zero. This is kind of "obvious" as if $\alpha$ is algebraic then there is a simple way of showing $d\alpha=0$ which fails if $\alpha$ is transcendental.
To actually prove $d\pi \neq 0$ though seems quite tricky, I imagine we must use the universal property of $\Omega_{\mathbb{R/Q}}$ somewhere, but how I have no idea.
Any ideas would be much appreciated.