I have to compute $d=\gcd(0!+1!+\ldots+n!, (n+1)!)$, so let $a=0!+1!+\ldots+n!$ and $b=(n+1)!$. Then:
$a=0!+1!+\ldots+n!=3!+0!+1!+2!+4!+...+n!=6+4+4!+...+n! \equiv 2 \mod 4$
Thus, $a$ and $b$ are even, but $4$ does not divide $a$, so $2 | d$. Now, if no other prime $p>2$ divides $a$ and $b$ we will have $d=2$. It is enough then to check the case where $n+1=p$, obviously, $p|(n+1)!$, so I have to check that $p$ does not divide $a=0!+1!+\ldots+n!=0!+1!+\ldots+(p-1)!\equiv 1!+\ldots+(p-2)! \mod p$
But I don't know how to continue. I'm sure that this is the way, but I don't find the tools to prove it.