Let $I$ be any ideal of $\mathbb Z[i]$ , then as $\mathbb Z[i]$ is euclidean domain , so $I=(z)$ for some gaussian integer $z$ ; so we can write every element of $\mathbb Z[i] / I$ as $x+(z)=qz+r+(z)=r+(z)$ where either $r=0$ or $N(r)<N(z)$ ; now for $r=0$ , every element of the form $x+(z)$ is nothing but $(z)$ and otherwise $N(r)$ is bounded above by $N(z)$ , so $N(r)$ , being a non-negative integer , can take only finitely many values , and since for a given $m \in \mathbb Z$ , $N(r)=N(r'+ir'')=r'^2+r''^2=m$ implies $r',r''$ can take only finitely many values , so $r$ can take only finitely many values ; hence the number of distinct elements of $\mathbb Z[i] / I$ is finite. Now my question is , can we , in general say that for any euclidean domain $D$ and any ideal $I$ of it , $D/I$ is finite ? If not , then can we characterize those Euclidean domains for which $D/I$ is finite for any ideal ? As far as I can see , I cannot carry the gaussian domain approach in general , as there I used the finiteness of solution of $a^2+b^2=k$ in integers $a,b$ for given $k$ , to conclude $N(r)=k$ for a given $k$ has only finitely many solutions in $r$ in the euclidean domain , It is true that if $N(r)=k$ for a given $k$ has only finitely many solutions in $r$ in the euclidean domain $D$ , then $D/I$ is finite for any ideal $I$ , but I don't know whether this condition is necessary or not . Please help . Thanks in advance .
$EDIT:$ In all of above $I \ne \{0\}$