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Do moments define distributions?

Suppose I have two random variables $X$ and $Y$. If I know $E\left[X^k\right] = E\left[Y^k\right]$ for every $k \in \mathbb N$, can I say that $X$ and $Y$ have the same distribution?

Davide Giraudo
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Ant
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  • See http://mathoverflow.net/questions/3525/when-are-probability-distributions-completely-determined-by-their-moments – binkyhorse Feb 26 '15 at 16:35
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    In general, no. At least not without additional assumptions. An example of such an assumption is that $E[e^{\rho|X|}]<\infty$ for some $\rho>0$. – Stefan Hansen Feb 26 '15 at 16:35
  • @StefanHansen, Is there a list of conditions for this to hold? – Royi Mar 02 '20 at 19:14

2 Answers2

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This question is known as (indeterminate) moment problem and has been first considered by Stieltjes and Hamburger. In general, the answer to your question is: No, distributions are not uniquely determined by their moments.

The standard counterexample is the following (see e.g. Rick Durrett, Probability: Theory and Examples): The lognormal distribution

$$p(x) := \frac{1}{x\sqrt{2\pi}} \exp \left(- \frac{(\log x)^2}{2} \right)$$

and the "perturbed" lognormal distribution

$$q(x) := p(x) (1+ \sin(2\pi \log(x)))$$

have the same moments.

Much more interesting is the question under which additional assumptions the moments are determining. @StefanHansen already mentioned the existence of exponential moments, but obviously that's a strong condition. Some years ago Christian Berg showed that so-called Hankel matrices are strongly related to this problem; in fact one can show that the moment problem is determinante if and only if the smallest eigenvalue of the Hankel matrix converges to $0$. For a more detailed discussion see e.g. this introduction or Christian Berg's paper.

J.G.
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saz
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    Thank you again for this great answer and links! It seems like they are above my current level but nonetheless I appreciate them. Why is it though that the the condition mentioned by @StefanHansen is sufficient? That would imply that the characteristic function of $X$ is $\phi(t) = \sum \frac{(it)^n}{n!}E[X^n]$ only for $t \le \rho$, am I right? (If it held for all $t$ we would have equality of characteristic functions and so $X$ and $Y$ have the same distribution). – Ant Feb 27 '15 at 11:47
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    @Ant Yes, you are right. However, it suffices to have $\mathbb{E}e^{\imath , t X} = \mathbb{E}e^{\imath , t Y}$ for $|t| \leq \varrho$ to conclude $X=Y$ in distribution (i.e. if two characteristic functions are identical in a neighborhood of zero, then they are identical). This is not obvious, see e.g. Kawata's book (Fourier Analysis in Probability Theory), Theorem 9.6.2. – saz Feb 27 '15 at 12:56
  • Ah, I see, perfect! Thanks :D – Ant Feb 27 '15 at 13:00
  • Hi! I'm sorry to bother after all this time, but I was looking at the charachteristic function page on wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Characteristic_function_(probability_theory)#Continuity) at the section of the Polya theorem, and there is an example of two charactheristic functions equal in a neighborhood of $0$ but different elsewhere. Would't that be against the result from Kawata? What am I misunderstanding? – Ant Dec 22 '15 at 13:56
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    @Ant It seems that I wasn't reading Kawata's result carefully enough. He proves the result only for characteristic functions with an additional regularity property. – saz Dec 22 '15 at 18:12
  • Could you please list more conditions which makes the suggestion hold? The simpler the better :-). – Royi Mar 02 '20 at 19:17
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A construction of two discrete probability measures on $\mathbb{R}$ having the same moments is given in Varadhan's 'Probability Theory', page 23.

For those without access, one can consider the family of holomorphic functions $$\Pi_{0\leq n\leq N}\left(1 - \frac{z}{e^n} \right) $$ which converge uniformly on compact sets to define an entire function, say $$A(z) = \sum\limits_{m=0}a_mz^m. $$ Thus for each $n$, we have $$0 = \sum\limits_{m=0} a_m(e^n)^m = \sum\limits_{m=0}(e^m)^n \Re(a_m). \ \ \ \ \ (\star) $$ Define $f(m) = \max(0,\Re(a_m))$ and $g(m) = \max(0,- \Re(a_m))$. $f(m)$ and $g(m)$ are both nonnegative with $f(m) - g(m) = \Re(a_m)$ and we define two probabilities supported on $\lbrace e^k : k = 0, 1\dots\rbrace$ by $$ \mu\left(\lbrace e^k \rbrace\right) = \frac{f(k)}{\sum f(m)},\ \nu\left(\lbrace e^k \rbrace \right) = \frac{g(k)}{\sum g(m)}. $$ One can check, using the definition of $A$ and $(\star)$, that the sums in the denominators do actually converge, are positive and that they are in fact the same number, call it $S$.

That these probabilities above have well defined moments, for example $\sum\limits_{m}(e^m)^n\mu\left(\lbrace e^m\rbrace\right) = \sum\limits_{m}(e^n)^m\mu\left(\lbrace e^m\rbrace\right)$, follows from the convergence of $A$.

And finally, by another application of $(\star)$, we have $$\mathbb{E}_{\mu}[x^n] = \sum\limits_{k}(e^k)^n\mu\left(\lbrace e^k\rbrace\right) = \sum\limits_{k}(e^k)^n \frac{f(k)}{S} = \frac{1}{S}\sum\limits_{k}(e^k)^n f(k) = \frac{1}{S}\sum\limits_{k}(e^k)^n g(k) = \mathbb{E}_{\nu}[x^n].$$

Calamardo
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