One definition $f(n)=o(g(n))$ is that $\lim_{n\to\infty} f(n)/g(n)=0$. If this is the definition you're using, then showing that the limit is $1$ already shows that $f(n)\neq o(g(n))$.
The other definition is that, for every $c>0$, there is an $n_0$ such that $f(n)\leq cg(n)$ for all $n\geq n_0$. The fact that $\lim_{n\to\infty} f(n)/g(n)=1$ means that, for all $\varepsilon>0$, there is some $n_0$ such that $f(n)/g(n)>1-\varepsilon$ for all $n\geq n_0$ (this is part of the definition of "limit"). So, for all $\varepsilon>0$, we have $f(n)>(1-\varepsilon)g(n)$ for all large enough $n$. This means that, in particular, we do not have $f(n)\leq cg(n)$ for $c=1-\epsilon$, so $f(n)\neq o(g(n))$ by the alternative definition.