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According to source page 20, theorem 1.9, it states that there is a universal Turing machine that can simulate any Turing machine with a time overhead of $O(\log n)$.

Can a universal Turing machine exists with less overhead? Can we prove that no such universal Turing machine exists?

If not, can we at least prove a lower bound on the overhead?

Yuval Filmus
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Anon21
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