This is not a hint, but a full answer. Don't read on if you're still trying to solve.
There is no need for $L_2\cdot L_1$ to be regular.
Let $A$ be a unary (non-regular) language such that $A\cdot A$ is regular. Such languages can be found in the post here. Assume $A$ is over the alphabet $\{a\}$.
Define $L_1=\{b\}\cdot A$ and $L_2=A\cdot \{b\}$. Then, you get $L_1\cdot L_2=\{b\}\cdot A^2\cdot \{b\}$, which is regular. However, $L_2\cdot L_1=A\cdot \{bb\}\cdot A$, which can be easily proven to be non-regular, based on $A$ being non-regular.