lemma ejercicio_36o:
"(p ∨ q) ∧ (p ∨ r) ⟹ p ∨ (q ∧ r)"
apply (frule conjunct1)
apply (frule conjunct2)
apply (erule disjE)
apply (erule disjI1)
apply (erule disjE)
apply (erule disjI1)
apply (rule disjI2)
apply (erule conjI)
apply assumption
done
I managed to prove the one above, but not the one below. It should be possible to do it with just those rules.
lemma ejercicio_36:
assumes "(p ∨ q) ∧ (p ∨ r)"
shows "p ∨ (q ∧ r)"
proof -
have "p ∨ q" using assms(1) by (rule conjunct1)
have "p ∨ r" using assms(1) by (rule conjunct2)
moreover
{assume "p"
hence "p ∨ (q ∧ r)" by (rule disjI1)}
moreover
{assume "q ∧ r"
hence "p ∨ (q ∧ r)" by (rule disjI2)}
ultimately show "p ∨ (q ∧ r)" by (rule disjE)
oops
Thank you.
